2014年2月25日星期二

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Exam Code: 1Z0-569
Exam Name: Oracle (Exalogic Elastic Cloud X2-2 Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 In ILOM, you can configure up to _________ alert rules.
A. 12
B. 20
C. 15
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three are features of the Sun ZFS Storage 7320 appliance that is used in Exalogic machines?
(Choose Three)
A. Entry level cluster option
B. Multi-protocol support
C. 100 TB of usable capacity
D. Replication and snapshots
E. 80 TB of usable capacity
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the default cluster configuration of Exaloglc's storage appliance?
A. The default storage pool is assigned to each storage head.
B. The default storage pool is assigned to the passive storage head.
C. A separate storage pool is allocated to each storage head.
D. The default storage pool is assigned to the active storage head.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In order to scale the WebLogic Server cluster beyond a single computers node, the domain must be
propagated to additional computers nodes. How is this best accomplished?
A. The domain can simply be zipped (using tar, cpio, or jar), copied over, and extracted on the other
computer node.
B. Web logic Server has specific commands like pack.sh and unpack.sh that are designed for this
purpose.
C. The step can be accomplished most easily through the admin server when the second machine is
added to the cluster.
D. With Exalogic Elastic Cloud software, domain propagation is automatic when additional machine is
added to the cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.5 If you cannot connect to ILOM over the network, which connection method would you use?
A. USB
B. Serial connection
C. Web
D. SSH
Answer: B

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NO.6 When using OHS and the WebLogic Server proxy plugin with dynamic server lists, what, if any,
configuration is required at the OHS tier when adding additional WebLogic Server instances?
A. OHS must be restarted anduponrestart;the dynamic server list will be automatically updated with newly
added server(s).
B. OHS httpd.conf must be updated with the newly added WebLogic Server(s).
C. Nothing. Newly added WebLogic Server instances are automatically picked up and the plugin is
dynamically reconfigured.
D. The admin server must be restarted when the cluster has been reconfigured. This will, in turn, notify
the web tier (OHS).
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two network channels are necessary to be configured on the admin server?
A. HTTP client channel
B. T3 channel
C. SDP channel
D. EoIB channel
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 When you run the Exalogic Configuration Utility scripts the first time, which three verification steps are
performed? (Choose Three)
A. BOND1 interfaces for all compute nodes
B. ILOM interfaces for all compute nodes
C. ILOM interfaces for storage heads
D. NET0 interfaces for all compute nodes
E. BOND2 interfaces for storage heads
Answer: BCD

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NO.9 In a reference Exalogic topology, all compute nodes _________.
A. Use locally installed application binaries for execution
B. Are subdivided using InfiniBand partitions based on application deployment topology
C. Remotely access software binaries installed on the shared Sun ZFS storage
D. Use SDP for all interprocess communication
Answer: D

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NO.10 In the CLI for the gateway switch, the command [option][option] . . . format of commands is used for
__________ .
A. General hardware administration
B. InfiniBand fabric control and management
C. ILOM access
D. Launching the web interface
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1z0-510
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle ATG Web Commerce 10 Implementation Developer Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are creating a primary table and an auxiliary table for an Item descriptor in the versioned
schema.
What are the properties that must be added to the tables?
A. You only need to add asset_version to both the tables.
B. You need to add asset_version to both the tables.inaddition, the primary table required seven
other
columns, such as version_editable, version_deleted, etc.
C. You need to add asset_version to both the tables.inaddition, the auxiliary table requires seven
other
columns, such as version_editable, version_deleted, etc.
D. You need to add asset_version and seven other columns, such as version_editable, version
deleted to
both the tables.
E. You need to add asset, version to the primary table and seven columns, such
asversion_editable,version deleted, etc. to the auxiliary tables.
F. You need to add seven columns, such as version_editable, version deleted, etc. to the primary
table
and only asset_version to the auxiliary table.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the role of the allocateItemRelQuantity chain?
A. to mark Shipping group as shipped
B. to purchase items from pre-order, back order, or regular stock usinginventory
C. to reorganize Items across shipping groups
D. to allocate items related to the quantity on hand
Answer: B

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NO.3 What would be the Ground and Expedited shipping prices for an order of a single item with a
price of
15.99 and having a weight of 42 with this configuration (assume no active shipping promotions)?
/atg/commerce/pricing/shippingPricingEngine.Properties: PreCalculators =Calculators/GroundshippingCalculator,\ Calculator/ExpiditedShippingCalculator
postCalculators=calculators/MypostCalculator
/atg/commerce/pricing/calculators/GrowthShippingCalculators.proprties:
$class=atg.commerce.pricing.priceRangeShippingCalculator ignoreShippingMethod=false
shippingmethod=Ground ranges =00.00:15.99:4.50,\ 16.00:30.99:6.00,\ 31.00:40.99:7.25,\ 41.00:MAX_VALUE:10.00
/atg/commerce/pricing/calculators/ExpeditedShippingCalculators.proprties:
$class=atg.commerce.pricing.priceRangeShippingCalculator ignoreShippingMethod=false
shippingmethod=Expedited ranges =00.00:15.99:4.50,\ 16.00:30.99:6.00,\ 31.00:40.99:7.25,\ 41.00:MAX_VALUE:10.00
/atg/commerce/pricing/calculators/MyPostCalculators.properties:
$class=atg.commerce.pricing.FixedPriceShippingCalculator
AddAmount=true
ignoreShippingMethod=true
shippingmethod=SpecialSurcharge
amount=4.99
A. Ground: 4.50, Expedited: 10.00
B. Ground: 10.00, Expedited: 10.00
C. Ground: 4.99, Expedited: 4.99
D. Ground: 9.49, Expedited: 14.99
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which component should a shareable component be registered with?
A. /atg/multisite/SiteGroupManager
B. /atg/multisite/SiteConfiguration
C. /atg/multisite/SharedComponentConfiguration
D. /atg/nucleus/multisite
Answer: A

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NO.5 Identify the problem with the following targeter rule set:
<ruleset><accepts><rule op=eq name= "Guitar News"><valueof target = "newsType"><valueof
constant
= "guitar"></rule><rule op = includes name = "Guitar players"><valueof bean =
"Profile.preferredcategory"><valueof constant = "guitars"></rule></accepts><accepts><rule op = eq
name = "Bass News"><valueof constant = "bass"></rule><rule op=includes name= "Bass
players"><valueof bean = "profile.preferencedCategory"><valueof constant =
"bass"></rule></accepts></ruleset>
A. All rule sets need a"reject rule".
B. All rule sets need a sorting directive.
C. Rules cannot containtwo accept directives.
D. A rule set cannot reference repository items.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Identify the significance of using cascade="insert" from the snippet below:
<item-descriptive name= "user">
<property name= "favoriteArticles" data-type = "list" component-list-item-type = "articles" cascade
=
"insert">
</item-descriptive>
A. An item of type articles is created once a new user is created.
B. If a user is deleted, all itemsinarticles of that user are deleted.
C. insert is ignored for properties that use the attribute component item-type.
D. An article named favoriteArticles is created.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What do you need to do to disable ATG's Out-of-the-Box behavior of persisting order
change?
A. Set /atg/commerce/order/OrderTools.persistOrders = false
B. Set/atg/commerce/order/OrderManager.persistOrders=false
C. Set /atg/commerce/ShoppingCart.persistOrders = false
D. ATG does not allow you to modify this behavior.
Answer: C

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NO.8 If you want to update the computedCatalogs and parentCatalog properties of a product, which
service should you use?
A. ProductUpdateService
B. CatalogGeneratorService
C. AncestorGeneratorService
D. ComputedCatalogService
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the reanimated order?
A. INCOMPLETEorders that have not been checked out by customers andinstead have remained idle
for
a duration of time
B. Previously abandoned orders that have since been modified by the customerinsome way, such as
adding items or changing item quantities.
C. Previously abandoned orders that have been successfully checked out by the customer.
D. Abandoned orders that have been abandoned for so long that reanimation of the order is no
longer
considered realistic.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which three reasons justify why customers should choose Oracle ATG Web Commerce as their
cross channel commerce platform.?
A. It is the most complete andintegrated e-commerce solutioninthe market.
B. It has the most flexible, modular, and elegant architecture compared to other competing
solutions.
C. It features production-ready reference applications that can be easily customized to meet your
application requirements.
D. It is the easiest platform to implement a compared e-commerce solutioninthe market.
E. It has the best online merchandising business tools and applications of all competing solutions.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 Assume that a versioned repository item in your application is not changed on the store
serves hut is only changed on the CA Server and published to the store server.
Which caching mechanism should you choose for it on the store server?
A. any of the CA-aware caching modes such as locked, distributed, or hybrid
B. Locked Caching
C. Immutable Item Caching
D. Simple Caching
E. No caching is necessary. Database will cache the Items as they do not change on the server.
Answer: A

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NO.12 How many current and saved orders does ATG allow a user profile to have?
A. ATG allows one current order and one saved order per user profile.
B. ATGallows one current order and a collection of saved orders per user profile.
C. ATG allows multiple current orders and a collection of saved orders per user profile.
D. Only one order can exist for a Give user profileinATG. There is no support for saved orders.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two ASE tasks can be performed from the ACC but not the BCC?
A. creating a custom product catalog
B. creating targeters
C. creating scenarios
D. creating slots
E. creating products and SKUs
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-580
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 11 Installation and Configuration Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Your system has two disk devices, c2t0d0 and c2t1d0, and two flash devices, c2t5d0 and
c2t8d0.
Which command would you to create a storage pool named “tank,” which mirrors the disks and
adds the two flash devices as “cache”?
A. zpool create tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 mirror c2t5d0 c2t8d0
B. zpoolcreate tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 log mirrorc2t5d0 c2t8d0
C. zpool c2t0d0 c2t1d0 cachec2t5d0 c2t8d0mirror
D. zpool create tank mirror c2t0d0 c2t1d0 cachec2t5d0 c2t8d0
E. zpool create tankraidz2c2t0d0 c2t1d0 c2t5d0 c2t8d0
Answer: D

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NO.2 List three reasons why Oracle Solaris 11 and SPARC would be the best platforms for deploying
an
Oracle database.
A. tight engineeringintegration between database and operating system development teams
B. continuous joint testing between database and operating system development teams
C. world record performance
D. Oracle Solaris11is only available on the SPARC platform
E. SPARCis the lowest cost hardware solution on the market today
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 What are the three properties of a business critical cloud infrastructure?
A. service isolation
B. flexible, virtual application instances
C. dedicated, single purpose file servers
D. easy,intuitive provisioning, chargeback, and capacity planning
E. rigid, inflexible network design
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which command can be used to determine which apache web server packages are installed?
A. pkg list apache
B. pkg list *apache*
C. pkg list installed apache
D. pkg listallapache
E. pkg list all web installed
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which IPS task requires special privileges?
A. Determine if a package is installed or can be updated.
B. Identify the group to which a package belongs.
C. Determine if a package is in a particular category.
D. Determine if a package delivers a specified file.
E. Create a copy of an existing IPS package repository.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z1-456
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A territory manager has created a proposal. When the proposal is validated, it can
create active territories. Identify a condition that would result in an error during the
validation process in Oracle Fusion Sales.
A. Parent territory covers all the dimensions of its child territories.
B. Active resources were added as dimension members.
C. Parent territory does not cover all the dimensions of its child territories.
D. A valid product has been added as a dimension member.
E. Partner sales representatives were added to child territories.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three objectives are achieved by a spread formula?
A. Calculate the distribution of an amount among selected child territories regardless
of the metrics
B. Spread the variance between the parent territory quota and the sum of child
territory quotas to the child territories.
C. Calculate the ratios to use for the child territories through the use of the metric
defined.
D. Equally distribute quota from the parent territory to child territories.
E. Distribute quota only to the parent territory.
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.3 While configuring the Assignment Manager, you activate and create assignment
mappings involving Geography ID, Industry and Customer Size. After an Internal
review, your company decides to no longer base decisions on industry. Your
supervisor asks a coworker to remove any industry considerations from the Fusion
Assignment Manager. Your coworker does this by navigating to Industry and
selecting the Inactive check box, but forgets to modify the existing mappings that
already use Industry. Select the expected system behavior based on this scenario.
A. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function;
however no new assignment mapping could use Industry.
B. The existing assignment mapping that uses Industry would continue to function,
but the concept of Industry would be automatically removed. The rule would
continue on all other criteria.
C. Any assignment mapping that uses Industry would be automatically deleted.
D. Any time the existing mapping is used. Fusion will automatically create a
resolution request. E. This can't be done; assignment objects can’t be set to inactive
if there is a mapping defined using the object
Answer: E

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NO.4 Select the three statements that describe the use of sales methodology in opportunity
management.
A. Selection of sales methodology is mandatory for every opportunity.
B. Sales methodologies consist of one or more sales stages.
C. Selection of sales methodology is optional for an opportunity.
D. Sales methodologiesbest describe an organization's sales process
E. Sales methodologies include sales stages; each sales stage can be tied to a range
of win probability and status.
Answer: B, E

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E. opportunity status
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: 1z0-822
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 11 Advanced System Administration Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You configured the Fail Share Scheduler on a server, and you defined CPU shares for two
nonglobal zones. You now need to apply shares to the global zone. The configuration needs to be
persistent across a reboot operation. Which utility will you use?
A. prctl
B. priocntl
C. zonecfg
D. dispadmin
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which option lists default checkpoints for building an image using the Distribution
Constructor?
A. manifest-valid andba-init
B. ba-arch and grub-setup
C. transfer-ips-install and pre-pkg-img-mod
D. pkg-img mod and create-usb
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two actions permit the system-log service to receive messages from a remote Solaris
host?
A. setting the propertyconfig/log_from_remoteto true and restarting the service
B. setting the property config/log_from_remoteto*.noticoand restart the service
C. configuring a selector for remote messages in the /etc/syslog.conf file
D. ensuring thatport 514 is open to remote traffic and doesn't require a password
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which scheduling class distributes CPU resources among its processes based on assigned
importance?
A. FairShare Scheduler (FSS)
B. Real-Time (RT)
C. Fixed-priority (FX)
D. Timesharing (TS)
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are tasked to reconfigure zone1 to use virtual interface vnic1 as its network interface.
Which
two steps must be included?
A. Disable IP Filter andIPsec.
B. Configure theNWAMNCPto Automatic.
C. Change the shared IP zone to an exclusive IP zone.
D. Reboot zonal so that changes made with zonecfq take effect.
E. Fromthe global zone, set the IP address of vnic1and configure the default route.
Answer: C,E

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NO.6 A recursive snapshot was taken of the root pool and the snapshot streams are stored on a
remote
system. The boot disk has failed, has been replaced, and the root pool snapshots have been
restored. Which two steps are still required to make the system bootable?
A. Re-create the swap and dump devices.
B. Install the boot blocks on the new disk.
C. Restore the snapshot stream.
D. Set thebootfsproperty on the root pool.
E. Perform aZFSrollback to restore the file systems in the root pool.
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 There is a valid SMF manifest located underneath the /var/svc/manifest directory.
Which four methods can be used to add it to the services repository?
A. Reboot the system.
B. Restart the early-manifest-import service.
C. Use the svccfg apply command.
D. Restart the manifest-import service.
E. Use the svccfg import command.
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.8 You are the administrator of on Oracle Solaris 11 Al server.
You added a client. Then you created a custom manifest, custom criteria, and a custom profile for
the client.
You made an error in the package path within the custom manifest.
When will the error appear?
A. when the manifestis checkedduringclient preinstall
B. when the manifestisused during clientinstall
C. when the manifestis updated on theAIserver
D. whenthemanifest is added to the AI server
Answer: D

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NO.9 At which two stages are backups of the service configuration repository made?
A. during boot, after the early-manifest-import service finishes
B. during boot, before the manifest-import service starts
C. during manifest import, before the manifest-import service finishes
D. during manifest import, after the manifest-import service finishes
E. when a service is modified using the svccfg command
F. after the last successful boot
G. when the svcadm refresh command is executed
Answer: D,F

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NO.10 You have assigned rights profiles directly to the uses frank and now you want to add another
profile. Which command enables you to list profiles directly assigned to frank?
A. userattr profiles frank
B. profiles –p frank
C. useratter –p frank
D. profiles frank
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-478
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Composite X invokes an outbound DB adapter to write data to a database table. You have
configured JCA at the binding component as follows:
<property name = "jca.retry.count" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
<property name = "jca.retry.interval" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
You have also modeled a modeled a fault policy to retry the invocation three times in case of
remoteFault as follows:
<retryCount>3<retryCount>
<retryInterval>3<retryInterval>
Which result describes what happens when the database that is being accessed by the above
binding component goes down?
A. The invocation is retrieved for a total of two times every two seconds. Fault policy retries are
ignored.
B. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every three seconds.
C. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every two seconds.
D. The fault policy retries occur within the JCA retries. So two JCA retries are executed two seconds
apart. Within each JCA retry, three fault policy retries are executed three seconds apart.
E. The JCA retries occur within the fault policy retries. So three fault policy retries are executed
three seconds apart. Within each fault policy retry, two JCA retries are executed two seconds apart.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Note: *Global retries for any error handling are returned to the BPEL Receive activity instance, for
example, or, more generally, to the point at which the transaction started. Such a retry could occur
if there was an error such as a temporary database fault. The default retry count is by default
indefinite, or specified in the jca.retry.count property.
*Properties you can specify in the composite.xml file include:
/jca.retry.count
Specifies the maximum number of retries before rejection. Again, specifying this value is a pre-
requisite to specifying the other property values.
/jca.retry.interval
Specifies the time interval between retries (measured in seconds.)
*A remoteFault is also thrown inside an activity. It is thrown because the invocation fails. For
example, a SOAP fault is returned by the remote service.

NO.2 In your solution, a web service client needs to invoke a series of three web services in support
of a single transaction. The third web service needs the identity of the original web service client.
Which statement describes how the identity is made available by Oracle Web Services Manager
(OWSM)?
A. The transaction manager accesses an internal table that maintains credentials used to invoke
each individual web service in the chain.
B. Each web service in the chain does its own authentication so the third web service handles its
own identity checking.
C. OWSM sets the user in the Java Authentication and Authorization (JAAS) Subject when the first
web service successfully authenticates, and the Java Subject is used by subsequent web services to
access the identity.
D. OWSM stores a SAML token from the first web service invocation in a database table, and that
table is accessed by subsequent web services in the chain to retrieve identity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Oracle Web Services Manager is a component of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Fusion Middleware
Control, a run-time framework that provides centralized management and governance of Oracle
SOA Suite environments and applications. You create and configureOracle Web Services Manager
policies in Oracle Enterprise Manager, and those policies are persisted in a policy store (a database
is recommended). Oracle Web Services Manager lets you define policies against an LDAP directory
and generate standard security tokens (such as SAML tokens) to propagate identities across multiple
Web services used in a single transaction.

NO.3 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

NO.4 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

NO.5 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-478   1Z0-478

NO.6 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.7 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.8 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

NO.9 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.

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Exam Code: 1z0-481
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle GoldenGate 11g Certified Implementation Exam Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 79 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Select the function that stores environmental values.
A. GGENVIRONMENT
B. @COLGEN
C. @GETENV
D. ETOKEN
Answer: C

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NO.2 What parameter provides options for compression and encryption?
A. RMTHOST
B. TARGET
C. TCPIP
D. TARGET DB
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Reference :
http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/E15881_01 /doc.104 /gg_wux_ref_v104.pdf

NO.3 Which Manager Parameter sets will report current lag every hour and write a critical message
for any Extract/Replicate with a lag over 60 minutes?
A. LAGBEPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFO 1 and LAGCRITICAL 60
B. LAGREPORTMINUTES 60, LAGINFOHOURS 1
C. LAGREPOBT 1, I.AGCRITICALHOURS 1
D. LAGREPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFOMINUTES 30, LAGCR JTTCAI-M I
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference :
http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/E15881_01 /doc.104 /gg_wux_ref_v104.pdf

NO.4 What GoldenGate process is responsible for capturing changes in the source database?
A. Manager
B. Replicate
C. Extract
D. Server Collector
Answer: C

Oracle   1z0-481   1z0-481   1z0-481
Explanation:
Reference:
http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/E15881_01 /doc.104 /gg_wux_ref_v104.pdf

NO.5 Select the statement that is supported by OGG DDL Replication.
A. ENCRYPT
B. ALTGLOBAL
C. CREATE ROLE
D. ALTDB
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Replicat parameter is used when looking up table definitions in a file?
A. SPECIALRUN
B. DEFERAPPLYINTERVAL
C. SOURCEISFILE
D. SOURCEDEFS
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which database platform does GoldenGate not natively support?
A. Sybase
B. FoxPro
C. DB2
D. Teradata
Answer: B

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NO.8 When implementing GoldenGate on a 11gR2 Oracle database and after running the
GoldenGate Database profiling script, you discover that certain objects are compressed, what
should you do?
A. Contact Oracle support
B. Continue the implementation of OGG and exclude those objects from replication
C. Configure OGG with Classic Capture
D. Configure OGG with Integrated Capture
Answer: D

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NO.9 Select the commands that give statistics regarding OGG process and memory resource usage.
A. SEND...REPORT
B. SEND...STATS
C. SEND...CACHEMGR
D. INFO...SHOWSTATS
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the GoldenGate command line interface?
A. SQLCUI
B. GGSCI
C. GGCTRL
D. GGCUI
Answer: B

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Exam Name: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Fundamental Exam)
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NO.1 What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a relationship in UML 2.0.?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

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NO.3 What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Answer: E

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NO.4 What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

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NO.9 The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?
A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?"
E. " "
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary
or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E

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NO.12 A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? ose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What are some of the important semantics of packages? ose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.15 What statements are true of the <<it>>endency in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.
Answer: B,F

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NO.16 What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<eration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? ose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What does a <<use>>endency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Answer: D

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NO.20 What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Answer: A

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NO.1 You just added a second hard drive to your RAID system. Click the area of the graphic
that redistributes data across all RAID devices, including the new hard drive.
Answer:
Explanation: Click on Restripe
page 6-9 Restriping redistributes data across all Raid devices, including the new hard
drive.

NO.2 .You want to modify your NCS environment by changing node assignment to
resource using ConsoleOne.
Which object's properties page allows you to change node assignments?
A. Any node object
B. The cluster object
C. The master node object
D. The Cluster ADMIN object
E. Any cluster-enabled resource or volume object
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which are tools you can use at the server console prompt to help troubleshoot IP
problems? (Choose two)
A. PING
B. TCPCON
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
E. IPCONFIG
Answer: A, B

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NO.4 .What happens during the Finish eDirectory Migration stage of a server migration to
NetWare 6 process? (Choose two)
A. The NICI files are copied.
B. The licenses are installed.
C. The volume objects are updated.
D. The destination server is restarted.
E. The file trustee assignment are restored.
Answer: C, E

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NO.5 .When performing a migration to a NetWare 6 server, which are valid statements
regarding copying volumes? (Choose two)
A. The volumes cannot be compressed.
B. The source and destination server's volumes must be NSS.
C. You do not need to copy all of the volumes at the same time.
D. The source and destination server's volume size must be the same.
E. The source and destination server's volume names must be the same.
Answer: C, E

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NO.6 .Shown are properties of the DACLUSTER object. There are applications in the
cluster that you want to load before others.
Click on the tab that will allow you to specify the order that applications load within
the cluster.
Answer:

NO.7 Which abend is almost always memory related?
A. Page fault
B. Invalid Opcode
C. Non Maskable Interrupt
D. General Protection Processor Exception
E. Ate Poison Pill in SbdWriteNode Tick given by some other node.
Answer: C

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NO.8 .You are working in a pure IP environment and the workstation is not
communicating with the server.
Which are some valid troubleshooting steps that can be executed on the workstation to
help identify the problem? (Choose three)
A. Ping the server.
B. Use TRACERT.
C. Verify that DSTRACE is not running.
D. Use CONFIG to verify that the network board is bound.
E. Verify the workstation IP address with the IPCONFIG command.
F. RUN DSTRACE to verify there are no DS communication issues between the
workstation and server.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.9 .Which statements are true about the source server when doing a server migration to
NetWare 6? (Choose two)
A. The source server must be running IP.
B. Any NetWare 3.x server and higher can be migrated to NetWare 6.
C. The source server's volumes must be the same size as the destination server's volumes.
D. If the source server is NetWare 4, the volumes must have long name space support
added.
E. The person performing the migration must have the Supervisor right to the source
server's file system.
Answer: D, E

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NO.10 After a NetWare 6 server migration, you have noticed that device drivers are not
loading. These drivers need to be placed in the directory where SERVER.EXE
resides.
Where can you copy these drivers from?
A. C:\DRIVERS
B. SYS:SYSTEM
C. STS:ETC\DRIVERS
D. SYS:SYSTEM\DRIVERS
E. C:\NWSERVER\DRIVERS
Answer: E

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NO.11 .If an object is missing a mandatory attribute, how will this object be displayed in
ConsoleOne?
A. As a grayed-out object.
B. As a black-and-white object.
C. As a mark in a circle.
D. As a mar in a square.
E. As two numbers with a dash between them (eg. 9-6).
Answer: C

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NO.12 .DRAG DROP
Listed are the SET parameters used that instruct the server how to respond to an
abend and the description for each SET parameter.
Drag the parameter to the appropriate description.
Answer:

NO.13 Using the UAL licensing model, where is it recommended to install user license if the
server object resides in the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR container and the user
objects reside in the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container?
A. In any container.
B. In the Security container.
C. In the DIGITALAIR container.
D. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container.
E. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
F. In the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
Answer: E

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NO.14 In a NCS environment, a resource state of ALERT has been placed on a resource.
What is a reason that a resource would be in an ALERT state?
A. The resource is shut down or in an inactive state.
B. The resource is unloading from the server it was running on.
C. The resource is not running and requires administrator intervention.
D. There isn't an assigned node up that the resource can be loaded on.
E. The Start, Failover, or Failback mode for the resource has been set to manual.
Answer: E

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NO.15 .An iFolder user has discovered that new files are not being synchronized to his
server, while at the same time changes to existing files are being synchronized.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The conflict bin is too small.
B. Corrupted file maps are dirmaps.
C. The computer does not have sync rights.
D. The server does not have enough disk space.
Answer: B

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NO.16 When checking the state of a cluster resource, what color will the resource appear as, if it
is unknown?
A. Red
B. Gray
C. Green
D. Yellow
E. Blank (or no color)
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which RAID levels can be implemented with NSS? (Choose two)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
G. 6
H. 7
Answer: A,B

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NO.18 .You have just completed installing NCS and are now going to create a shared disk
partition.
Which utility is used to create a shared disk partition?
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. Server Manager
E. NWCONFIG.NLM
Answer: C

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NO.19 .There are problems when starting your NetWare 6 server.
Which command helps to identify at which point modules are loading during the server
startup?
A. LIST
B. CONFIG
C. STARTUP
D. MODULES
E. LIST STAGE
Answer: E

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NO.20 Which is a useful troubleshooting step if a server is not communicating?
A. Verify that cache buffers are over 20%.
B. Verify that the server is not out of packet receive buffers.
C. Verify that the DOS=HIGH command is not in CONFIG.SYS.
D. Remove memory managers from loading in AUTOEXEC.NCF.
Answer: B

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