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Exam Code: 50-664
Exam Name: Novell (Novell edirectory design and implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Perform the following drag-and-drop task. Begin by clicking the Drag-and-Drop button. When
you finish, continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. Listed are administrator
roles and their characteristics. Drag the administrator role to its characteristic.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2

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NO.2 Which statement is true of queue-based printing?
A.The print server object must be associated with a volume object.
B.The printer object must be associated with a print server object.
C.The print queue object must be associated with a print server object.
D.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container.
E.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container as the
corresponding server object.
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A.Master
B.Master and filtered
C.Master and read/only
D.Master and read/write
E.Master,read/write, and read-only
F.Master, read/write, and filtered
G.Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Correct:E

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NO.4 You are the network administrator for your company and are in charge of your company's
eDirectory design and implementation project. You have completed the project approach phase of
the eDirectory design cycle. Which tasks still need to be completed before you begin the
implementation phase? (Choose 2.)
A.Design the eDirectory tree
B.Fine-tune the eDirectory design
C.Determine accessibility needs
D.Plan a time synchronization strategy
E.Gather business information related to network design
Correct:A C

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NO.5 You have completed a tree merge and want to confirm the new tree name by ensuring that all
servers in the tree are configured to support the new tree. Which utility will provide you the status
of every server in the tree and the name of the tree it is servicing?
A.DSMAINT
B.DSMERGE
C.DSREPAIR
D.ConsoleOne
E.NDS Manager
Correct:B

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NO.6 You have just finished executing a tree merge. Which tasks are left to complete the tree merge
process? (Choose 2.)
A.Correct bindery services commands.
B.Update workstation configurations.
C.Delete and re-create volume objects.
D.Restore the taped backup of the file system.
E.Verify trustee assignments to the file system.
Correct:A B

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NO.7 Which DNS/DHCP object contains resource record sets for DNS root servers?
A.DNS Zone object
B.DNS Group object
C.DNS Locator object
D.DNS Name Server object
E.RootSrvrInfo Zone object
Correct:E

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NO.8 A secondary server is not synchronized with a single reference time server. During the next
polling process, what percent of the time difference does the secondary time server adjust?
A.0%
B.16%
C.25%
D.50%
E.75%
F.100%
Correct:F

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NO.9 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. Shown in the exhibit is a partition and
replica table, and a partitioned eDirectory tree. Which servers automatically receive a subordinate
reference of the PR partition?
A.Serv2, Serv5, and Serv6
B.Serv2, Serv4, and Serv6
C.Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
D.Serv2, Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
E.Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6
Correct:C

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NO.10 You are getting ready to merge 2 eDirectory trees. What should be done before attempting to
merge trees? (Choose 2.)
A.Back up both eDirectory trees.
B.Rename the Admin user object in the target tree.
C.Remove the source server from all replica rings.
D.Use DSREPAIR to update the schema so it is the same on both servers.
E.Rename the first level container objects in both trees to be identical.
Correct:A D

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NO.11 In which eDirectory objects do WAN traffic policies reside? (Choose 2.)
A.The Admin object
B.The Server object
C.The LAN Area object
D.Any container object
E.The partition root object
Correct:B C

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NO.12 What is a good recommendation to follow when designing partitions for lower layers in the tree?
A.Create a partition for each container.
B.Partition the Directory by function regardless of location.
C.Use organizational divisions and workgroups to define lower-level partitions.
D.Place all servers, including servers at different locations, in the same partition.
E.Partition the Directory with more partitions at the top and fewer partitions at lower-levels.
Correct:C

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NO.13 In which file do you configure time on a Linux server?
A.ntp.conf
B.init.conf
C.time.conf
D.tsync.conf
E.clock.conf
Correct:A

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NO.14 What does WAN Traffic Manager control? (Choose 2.)
A.Events initiated by administrators or users
B.Server-to-server traffic generated by eDirectory
C.Server-to-server traffic generated by time synchronization
D.The amount of eDirectory traffic based on cost of traffic and time of day
E.Which servers the master replica server synchronizes to by using configured lists
Correct:B D

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NO.15 Your company has 15 sites connected by a WAN link to corporate headquarters. Corporate
headquarters has 50 servers and each of the 15 sites has 30 servers. You are implementing a
multiple time provider group time synchronization strategy. Which are considerations you should
make before implementing this strategy? (Choose 2.)
A.If possible, create local time providers.
B.There will be a single point of failure at each location.
C.You cannot exceed 7 primary time servers in your network.
D.Make sure each reference server will synchronize with the same external source.
E.The single reference time synchronization strategy will provide a better strategy for this network
structure.
Correct:A D

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NO.16 After you create object naming standards, what should be defined for the attribute standards?
(Choose 2.)
A.Which object types require attributes
B.Whether the attribute of an object is required
C.Whether the attribute of an object is purgeable
D.Whether the attribute of an object is unique from other object attributes
E.Whether the attribute of an object is a system attribute that is automatically populated by eDirectory
Correct:B E

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NO.17 What does DSMERGE allow you to do?
A.Create replicas
B.Create partitions
C.Rename the eDirectory tree
D.Configure time synchronization
E.Rename objects within the eDirectory tree
Correct:C

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NO.18 You have just created an eDirectory tree and installed 3 servers into the tree. The tree has one
partition. Server1, Server2, and Server3 were installed into the Corp container. Server2 crashed
and you removed it from the tree before you installed additional servers. The additional servers
installed in the tree were Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7. Server4 and Server5 were
installed into the Prod container. Server6 and Server7 were installed into the Acct container. The
Corp, Prod, and Acct containers are children of the tree root. The servers were placed in the tree
in the following order: Server4, Server5, Server6, Server7. You haven't had the chance to manually
add replicas to any server. Which servers hold replicas?
A.Server1 and Server3
B.Server1, Server3, and Server4
C.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server6
D.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server5
E.Server1, Server3, Server6, and Server7
F.Server1, Server3, Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7
Correct:B

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NO.19 What does the following WAN Traffic Manager policy control? TCPIP, NA
A.Prevents background traffic generated by TCP/IP
B.Prevents background traffic unless the traffic is generated by TCP/IP
C.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic is in the same TCP/IP network area
D.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic comes from a different TCP/IP network area
Correct:B

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NO.20 You are implementing an NDPS printing environment. Where is it recommended to place the
NDPS print manager object in the eDirectory tree?
A.Next to user objects
B.Next to the NDPS printer object
C.In the same container where the server object resides
D.At least one level higher than the printers it manages
E.In the same container as the user object that has administrative rights to manage it
Correct:D

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Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Green IT Exam)
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Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which of the following terms is used when printing data on both the front and the back of paper?
A. Scaling
B. Copying
C. Duplex
D. Simplex
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following technologies can save server space and cooling requirements?
A. Energy star ratings
B. Active solar panels
C. Network storage array
D. Blade servers
Answer: D

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NO.3 A bank runs 50 workstations and would like to decrease its electricity costs, while not sacrificing
functionality. All of the workstations are high-end performance units that are intended to be used for
CAD-like applications. Analysts benefit from the added performance, but tellers and associates could use
more minimalist systems. Which of the following methods would decrease the banks electricity and
hardware costs?
A. Swap all teller and associate machines with servers.
B. Swap all teller and associate machines with thin clients.
C. Swap all teller and associate machines with low-profile high-end workstations.
D. Swap all teller and associate machines with laptops.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following methods effectively removes data from a hard drive prior to disposal? (Select
TWO).
A. Use the remove hardware OS feature
B. Formatting the hard drive
C. Physical destruction
D. Degauss the drive
E. Overwriting data with 1s and 0s by utilizing software
Answer: CE

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NO.5 A company would like to dispose of old toner units. Which of the following would be the MOST
appropriate course of action to take?
A. Use an approved recycling program either through a vendor or local government agency.
B. Old toner disposal is the responsibility of the manufacturer. Call the appropriate number at the
respective company.
C. Toss the units into the trash. Toner cartridges are biodegradable.
D. Clean out the toner cartridges with warm water and place the clean units into the recycling collection.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is the recommended disposal method for used computers?
A. Trash can
B. Burial
C. Recycling center
D. Storage shed
Answer: C

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NO.7 A large company would like to roll out thin clients to all retail terminals on its next upgrade. Which of
the following are potential risks of this IT plan?
A. Power consumption; thin clients use more energy than comparable workstations and therefore have a
larger energy footprint.
B. Single point of failure; if the thin client server goes down all machines are without functionality.
C. Centralized administration; IT staff cannot rely on localized group policy settings.
D. High cost of terminals; compared to traditional workstations, thin clients are very expensive and require
more maintenance.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The power saving state in which a computer cuts power to all its unneeded parts and copies the RAM
content to the hard drive is called:
A. hibernate.
B. shutdown.
C. sleep.
D. hypervisor.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following will allow multiple operating systems to run on one workstation?
A. FireWire
B. KVM
C. Virtualization
D. Terminal servers
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following needs to be recycled due to dangerous amounts of gas contained inside its
housing?
A. CRT
B. Toner
C. Surge suppressor
D. LCD
Answer: A

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NO.11 A small business currently has four separate servers, three of which perform low-overhead tasks with
small memory footprints. How could the company BEST reduce power consumption among these four
servers, while not sacrificing functionality?
A. Enable each server's Cool 'n' Quiet and/or SpeedStep functionality so that processing power is
conserved.
B. Enforce auto-shutdown routines on all four servers for after-hours power saving while the office is
closed.
C. Consolidate the four servers onto the best two, combining them logically by tasks and memory
consumption.
D. Consolidate the four servers onto the most powerful machine using virtualization.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following would allow a company to conserve energy and still provide a functional service
to its employees?
A. Configure all workstations with higher RPM fans
B. Use CRTs instead of LCD monitors
C. Use NAS to reduce the number of file servers
D. Configure all printers to print on single-side with low resolution
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following technologies allows a single piece of hardware to host multiple operating
systems simultaneously?
A. Virtualization
B. SMTP servers
C. ThinNet clients
D. Terminal servers
Answer: A

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NO.14 A small business currently has a server room with a large cooling system that is appropriate for its size.
The location of the server room is the top level of a building. The server room is filled with incandescent
lighting that needs to continuously stay on for security purposes. Which of the following would be the
MOST cost-effective way for the company to reduce the server rooms energy footprint?
A. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving neon lighting.
B. Set an auto-shutoff policy for all the lights in the room to reduce energy consumption after hours.
C. Replace all incandescent lighting with energy saving fluorescent lighting.
D. Consolidate server systems into a lower number of racks, centralizing airflow and cooling in the room.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following would a company implement to help reduce the cost of electricity?
A. Shutdown/power policies
B. Redundant power supplies
C. Use optical mice
D. Social engineering policy
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following standard symbols signifies that a packaged item was produced using
hazardous materials industry guidelines?
A. Energy Star
B. Energy Star 2.0
C. PCI-E
D. RoHS
Answer: D

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NO.17 A large company has over 500 computers that currently stay powered on indefinitely. None of the
systems are used after the company closes at 5 p.m. Which of the following would be the MOST effective
way for the company to save on electricity usage?
A. Set the computers for automatic log-off after one hour of inactivity.
B. Institute a policy of either shutdown or sleep mode an hour after close.
C. Turn on the Wake on LAN functionality for all computers.
D. Schedule all patching to be done during work hours.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A corporation plans to replace older office PCs with energy efficient personal computers in their 24 hour
help desk department. Which of the following would be the BEST choice?
A. Tablet notebooks with LCD monitors
B. Thin clients with LCD monitors
C. Thin clients with CRT monitors
D. Notebook computers with LCD monitors
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following can conserve energy in a server room?
A. Sealing all potential cold air leaks
B. Installing additional cooling fans
C. Setting the temperature lower
D. Replacing the UPS with a generator
Answer: A

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NO.20 A user reports that their cell phone battery is dead and cannot hold a charge. Which of the following
should be done when disposing of the old battery?
A. Recycle the battery.
B. Store the battery.
C. Place battery in a sealed plastic bag.
D. Disassemble the battery.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following is the most secure authentication scheme and uses a public key cryptography
and digital certificate to authenticate a user?
A. Form-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Certificate-based authentication
Answer: D

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NO.2 SDLC phases include a minimum set of security tasks that are required to effectively incorporate
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development/acquisition phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
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talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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A. Call tampering
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B

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NO.5 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
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is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

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NO.6 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
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core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 In which of the following activities an organization identifies and prioritizes technical, organizational,
procedural, administrative, and physical security weaknesses?
A. Social engineering
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following stages are involved in the successful implementation of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Ongoing collaboration solution design
B. Federated identity management
C. Platform implementation
D. Product and service integration
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which of the following is a declarative access control policy language implemented in XML and a
processing model, describing how to interpret the policies?
A. SAML
B. SOAP
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following are the functions of a network security administrator? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Backing up the files
B. Writing computer software
C. Maintaining and implementing a firewall
D. Developing, maintaining, and implementing IT security
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

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NO.14 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.16 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.17 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want the clients and servers in your
organization to be able to communicate in a way that prevents eavesdropping and tampering of data on
the Internet. Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?
A. EFS
B. WEP
C. SSL
D. MS-CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is frequently used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks
and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it?
A. Fuzzer
B. Port scanner
C. MegaPing
D. UDP scan
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

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NO.20 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases. Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: CLO-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 182 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications.?
A. Cloud providers will do application development.
B. The development process needs to change.
C. The role of the IT department will change.
D. This can speed up the development process.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost.
A. increases
B. reduces
C. shifts
D. equates
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing?
A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction
B. Desire for improved security
C. Desire for improved user experience
D. Desire for reducing compliance issues
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following consequences does IT outsourcing and cloud computing have in common?
A. Involvement of external staff
B. Improved flexibility
C. Reduced expense
D. Shorter time to market
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is the primary way to access PaaS?
A. Web services
B. Websites
C. Web hosting providers
D. Data integrations
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is the MOST important service management consequence of elastic capacity?
A. The need for better application development
B. The need for better security management
C. The need for good performance monitoring and management
D. The need to improve the fulfillment and provisioning process
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?
A. It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B. It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C. It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D. It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?
A. Pay as you go agreements
B. Short-term financial commitment
C. Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D. Vendor lock-in potential
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold
their contract?
A. Consult the company's exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Answer: C

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NO.14 How can an organization successfully implement a SaaS strategy?
A. Manage the risks associated with bringing in external providers
B. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access for easier access
D. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines to increase security
Answer: A

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NO.15 Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the
further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud
computing?
A. Provisioning services
B. Incident management
C. Technology upgrade monitoring
D. Security and risk management
Answer: A

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NO.17 Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT:
A. A third-party identity provider.
B. The customer organization.
C. The SaaS provider.
D. A user.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example of:
A. IaaS.
B. SaaS
C. PaaS.
D. On-demand software.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is a typical concern for business and IT leaders when adopting cloud
computing?
A. Current cost structure of IT
B. Quality of web-based user interfaces
C. Security of current IT solutions
D. Technical maintenance of current IT assets
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following IT processes is likely to become more important due to the adoption of cloud
computing?
A. Capacity management
B. Troubleshooting management
C. Project management
D. Request fulfillment management
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ADR-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Mobile App Security+ Certification Exam (Android Edition))
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Total Q&A: 102 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which of the following will LEAST likely be detected through source code analysis?
A. Improper certificate validation
B. Buffer overflow vulnerability
C. Improper build process
D. Hardcoded credentials
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is the MOST reliable form of input validation?
A. Positive validation of input data using regular expression processing
B. Base64 encoding of input data
C. Validating the bounds of input data using a character set
D. HTML or URI encoding of input data and ensuring Unicode support
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following can be performed to find security design flaws in mobile apps prior to
writing code?
A. Threat modeling
B. Penetration testing
C. Static source code analysis
D. Dynamic validation testing
Answer: A

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NO.4 When handling sensitive data with Android apps, which of the following storage strategies is
MOST secure?
A. Store data on device using encryption, with encryption key managed on the server
B. Prompt users to enable encryption
C. Store sensitive data locally in XML protected with file permissions
D. Store sensitive data on the server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is a reason to take mobile app security seriously when developing a
social networking app that does NOT accept payments? (Select TWO).
A. PCI-DSS regulations
B. Consumer privacy expectations and regulations
C. HIPAA regulations
D. FIPS compliance
E. Company reputation
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 Which of the following methodologies is BEST for a developer to find input validation
weaknesses in their own mobile app source code?
A. Disassembly of mobile app executable
B. Threat modeling
C. Fuzz testing an app's attack surface
D. Single stepping an app through a debugger
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is fundamental to MOST transport layer encryption implementations?
A. Device passcode
B. Obfuscation
C. HTTPS
D. Keychain
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following attempts to inhibit an application from being trojanized and
proliferating?
A. Tamper protection in code.
B. Encrypting config file.
C. Ensure appropriate permissions are deployed to every component.
D. Login credentials delivered over network with HTTPS.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following accurately explains why many people criticize the use of a unique
hardware ID such as IMEI/MEID to identify users? (Select TWO).
A. The hardware ID can be traced to an individual user and help track activity over time and across
apps
B. The hardware ID unlocks encryption on the device
C. Companies encode email addresses directly into the hardware ID
D. Hardware ID values are easily predictable
E. Users cannot selectively block apps' access to it
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which of the following techniques are useful in a secure software development process?
(Select TWO).
A. Cross platform compatibility testing with HTML5
B. Using hardware encryption to protect all data on the device
C. Static code analysis
D. Abuse/misuse case analysis
E. Implementation of two-factor authentication
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 Consider the Registration relation shown in the exhibit. Which of the following SQL statements would
return all tuples that have course codes beginning with the letter M?
A.SELECT * FROM Registration WHERE Course_Code = M#;
B.SELECT * FROM Registration WHERE Course_Code LIKE M_;
C.SELECT * FROM Registration WHERE Course_Code LIKE M%;
D.SELECT * FROM Registration WHERE Course_Code = M%;
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which relational algebraic operation is used to select specific columns (attributes) from a relation?
A.Union
B.Difference
C.Projection
D.Intersection
Answer:C

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NO.3 What is the highest normal form of the relation(s) shown in the exhibit?
A.Second normal form
B.First normal form
C.Boyce-Codd normal form
D.Third normal form
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which of the following describes two desirable characteristics of a primary key?
A.A primary key should be a value that may be null and may change over time.
B.A primary key should be a value that is not null and will never change.
C.A primary key should consist of meaningful data and a value that can be changed if needed.
D.A primary key should not consist of meaningful data and a value that can be changed if needed.
Answer:B

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NO.5 Consider the following relation definition: STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name:
variable length character string length 20 NOT NULL) Primary Key Student_Number
HOUSING( Housing_ID: integer NOT NULL Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Building: variable
length character string length 25 NOT NULL) Primary Key Housing_ID Foreign Key Student_Number
References STUDENT(Student_Number) ON DELETE NO CHECK ON UPDATE Which integrity
constraint is violated in this relation definition?
A.Entity integrity
B.Domain constraint
C.Referential integrity
D.Enterprise constraint
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which characteristic is an advantage of a database management system?
A.Data files are owned and maintained by the users.
B.Database administration is simplified.
C.A standard method can be used to access the database.
D.Data is decentralized.
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which of the following occurs in a relation when records are added or removed?
A.The number of domains changes.
B.The attributes in the table change.
C.The cardinality of the relation is fixed but the degree varies.
D.The degree of the relation is fixed but the cardinality varies.
Answer:D

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NO.8 Consider the following SQL statement and the Orders relation shown in the exhibit: What is the output
of this SQL statement? Answer & Explanation Correct Answer C Explanations No more information
available
Answer:

NO.9 Consider the following relation definitions: STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name:
variable length character string length 20 ) Primary Key Student_Number HOUSING( Housing_ID: integer
NOT NULL Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Building: variable length character string length 25 )
Primary Key Housing_ID Foreign Key Student_Number References STUDENT(Student_Number) ON
DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE CASCADE What are the referential constraints for the relations
defined in these relation definitions?
A.There is no relationship between changes in STUDENT(Student_Number) and
HOUSING(Student_Number).
B.When STUDENT(Student_Number) is changed or deleted, this modification or deletion will
automatically be reflected in HOUSING(Student_Number).
C.Modifications to HOUSING(Student_Number) are automatically reflected in changes to
STUDENT(Student_Number), but deletions are not permitted.
D.Modifications to STUDENT(Student_Number) are automatically reflected in changes to
HOUSING(Student_Number). For a deletion to occur from STUDENT(Student_Number), it must first
occur in HOUSING(Student_Number).
Answer:D

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NO.10 Consider the Information Engineering diagram in the exhibit showing a conceptual data model of the
relations BUILDING and RESIDENT. What is the next step in refining the data model?
A.Create intermediate entities.
B.Create a logical data model.
C.Resolve many-to-many relationahips.
D.Identify and resolve complex relationships.
Answer:B

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NO.11 Which process is used to prevent the current database operation from reading or writing a data item
while that data item is being accessed by another operation?
A.Lock
B.Deadlock
C.Timestamp
D.Batch
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which of the following best describes the information contained in the data dictionary (or system
catalog)?
A.Metadata
B.Data model
C.Table data
D.Metafile
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which of the following best describes a composite key?
A.A composite key is a primary key and foreign key that consists of the first two attributes of a relation.
B.A composite key is a primary or foreign key defined by its parent key attributes.
C.A composite key is a foreign key that consists of the same attributes as the primary key from a related
table.
D.A composite key is a primary or foreign key that consists of two or more attributes of a relation.
Answer:D

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NO.14 Consider the Recreation relation in the exhibit. A data operation that changes one of the tuples for
Student_ID 1003 must be performed. It is necessary to change one of the activities from swimming to
tennis. The Student_ID and Activity attributes make up the primary key for the Recreation relation. All
related information must be altered, as well. Which SQL statement or statements would best accomplish
this?
A.UPDATE Recreation SET Activity, Activity_Fee ('Tennis', 100) WHERE Student_ID = 1003;
B.UPDATE TABLE Recreation SET ACTIVITY = 'Tennis', Activity_Fee = 100 WHERE Student_ID = 1003
AND Activity = Swimming;
C.UPDATE Recreation SET Activity = 'Tennis', Activity_Fee = 100 WHERE Student_ID = 1003 AND
Activity = 'Swimming';
D.DELETE Activity FROM Recreation WHERE Student_ID = 1003; INSERT INTO Recreation VALUES
(1003, 'Tennis', 100);
Answer:C

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NO.15 Consider the following relations shown in the exhibit. Which of the following SQL statements would
return the Customers2 relation from the Customers relation?
A.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate <= 80 OR Satisfaction_Rate >= 90;
B.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate IN (80 AND 90);
C.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate >= 80 AND Satisfaction_Rate <= 89;
D.SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate BETWEEN (80, 90);
Answer:C

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NO.16 The exhibit shows a table called Student Relation that tracks all information related to a students
courses, professors and sites. What would be the consequence of removing all records for a student with
the ID 1311?
A.Only an update anomaly would occur.
B.An insertion anomaly would occur.
C.A deletion anomaly would occur.
D.An update anomaly and a deletion anomaly would occur.
Answer:C

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NO.17 Consider the following four database design activities: 1 - Design user views. 2 - Select a DBMS. 3 -
Apply normalization. 4 - Determine entities. Which choice shows the correct ordering of these activities,
from first to last, by assigned numbers?
A.1, 2, 3, 4
B.3, 4, 1, 2
C.4, 1, 3, 2
D.4, 2, 3, 1
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which pair of relational algebraic operations requires union compatibility?
A.Projection and Cartesian product
B.Selection and projection
C.Intersection and difference
D.Cartesian product and intersection
Answer:C

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NO.19 Consider the entity-relation (ER) diagram shown in the exhibit. When the logical database design phase
is completed, which of the following is a valid DBDL description of the base relations for the ER diagram?
A.STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name: variable length character string length 20 NOT
NULL) Primary Key Student_Number CLASS( Class_Num: integer NOT NULL Class_Name: integer NOT
NULL) Primary Key Class_Num
B.STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name: variable length character string length 20 NOT
NULL) Primary Key Student_Number CLASS( Class_Num: integer NOT NULL Class_Name: integer NOT
NULL) Primary Key Class_Num Foreign Key Class_Num References STUDENT
C.STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name: variable length character string length 20 NOT
NULL) Primary Key Student_Number STU_CLASS( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Class_Num:
integer NOT NULL) Primary Key Student_Number CLASS( Class_Num: integer NOT NULL Class_Name:
integer NOT NULL) Primary Key Class_Num
D.STUDENT( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Name: variable length character string length 20 NOT
NULL) Primary Key Student_Number STU_CLASS( Student_Number: integer NOT NULL Class_Num:
integer NOT NULL) Primary Key Student_Number CLASS( Class_Num: integer NOT NULL Class_Name:
integer NOT NULL) Primary Key Class_Num
Answer:D

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NO.20 Your enterprise is involved in planning a database project. The exhibit shows the result of one phase of
the database design life cycle. Which term best describes the diagram shown in the exhibit?
A.Information Engineering (IE) data model
B.Corporate data model
C.Database requirements model
D.Entity Relation Data (ERD) model
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 1Y0-731
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix Netsoaler 8.0: Administration Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 What must an administrator configure the NetScaler log to record in order to know when someone has
altered the system configurations?
A. Access logs
B. Event messages
C. System counters
D. Audited commands
Answer: D

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NO.2 A large e-commerce company is planning on integrating NetScaler systems into their network
environment. The company requires that the original client IP addresses be recorded in the web server
logs.
Which two features on the NetScaler could accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. USIP
B. RNAT
C. USNIP
D. Edge mode
E. Client IP insertion
Answer: AE

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NO.3 An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout."
Which two options could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?
(Choose two.)
A. SNMP user
B. SNMP group
C. SNMP manager
D. SNMP community
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Scenario: A company based in Beijing was unable to reach their data center for more than a week due
to a nearby earthquake. The company now has Distributed Data Centers in multiple regions, including a
disaster recovery center, to increase redundancy. The company wants their new NetScaler systems to
load balance these
centers.
Which NetScaler feature will allow load balancing across these centers only for redundancy?
A. Global Server Load Balancing to make load balancing decisions between the two sites
B. TCP-based content switching to make a decision between the load balance virtual servers
C. Proximity-based Global Server Load Balancing based on the RTT of client requests to virtual servers
D. SNMP load monitor bound to each location and bound to the default NetScaler metric table and with
the appropriate SNMP OIDs to load balance the different locations
Answer: A

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NO.5 Scenario: An administrator is planning on deploying a NetScaler system into a network environment
using SNMP. The administrator plans on enabling the 11 SNMP traps relating to request and response
rates.
Which two objects must the administrator configure in order for the SNMP traps to send alerts? (Choose
two.)
A. SNMP destination
B. Source IP address
C. Threshold levels for the traps
D. Additional IP addresses on which the SNMP service can respond to SNMP queries
Answer: AC

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NO.6 A company is planning on implementing NetScaler systems in High Availability pairs.
Which entry in the NS.CONF file of the secondary system needs to be unique from those of the primary
system?
A. VMAC
B. Node ID
C. MIP address
D. NSIP address
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a NetScaler system when __________.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C. network connections between LAN switches and network servers require more than 1Gb/sec
D. network connections between LAN switches and network servers require more than 8 Gb/sec
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which type of VLAN is used when an administrator leaves the NetScaler system interfaces on the
default VLAN?
A. Tagged
B. Port-based
C. MAC-based
D. Protocol-based
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator plans to configure a NetScaler system to resolve DNS queries using an external DNS
server with an IP address of 10.10.10.1.
Which command could the administrator use to configure this?
A. add nameserver DNS1 10.10.10.1
B. add lb vserver DNS1 dns 10.10.10.1
C. add server DNS1 10.10.10.1 -external
D. add nameserver DNS1 dns 10.10.10.1 -local
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two modes could a NetScaler system be deployed in if all traffic must pass through the
NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. HA inline
B. HA one-arm
C. Stand-alone inline
D. Stand-alone one-arm
Answer: AC

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NO.11 How many untagged VLANs can an administrator configure on a single interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 16
D. 256
E. 4,096
Answer: A

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NO.12 Scenario: An administrator is configuring monitoring for web servers in the environment that often
results in services being marked as DOWN because of slow back-end servers. The administrator wants to
configure the virtual server and services so that existing connections stay open when a service is marked
down but not when a virtual server is marked DOWN.
How must the administrator configure the service and virtual server to reflect this dependency?
A. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush DISABLED
set service svc1 -downStateFlush ENABLED
B. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush ENABLED
set service svc1 -downStateFlush ENABLED
C. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush DISABLED
set service svc1 -downStateFlush DISABLED
D. set lb vserver lbv1 -downStateFlush ENABLED
set service svc 1 -downStateFlush DISABLED
Answer: D

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NO.13 What does an administrator need to configure in order for a NetScaler system to advertise virtual IP
addresses, directly connected routes and static routes on the upstream routers?
A. Static Routes
B. Link Load Balancing
C. Route Health Injection
D. Front-end Health Check
Answer: C

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NO.14 Scenario: An administrator introduced two new servers into a server farm that can handle more traffic
than the older servers. The current load balancing method set for the virtual server managing the traffic
for this group of servers is Least Connections. The administrator wants to maintain the load balancing
method but also wants to use the new servers to improve performance by having them take more of the
traffic than the older servers.
Which advanced option must the administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Spillover
B. Max Client
C. Backup vserver
D. Service Weights
E. Global Setting Override
Answer: D

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NO.15 A multinational company with two server farms wants to set-up a NetScaler system with High
Availability as shown in the attached exhibit without using content switching.
How many virtual IP addresses will the administrator need for the environment set up to work?
Click the Exhibit button to view the environment.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B

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NO.16 Scenario: A company is deploying a NetScaler system in a network environment with some subnets
open to the public Internet and one non-routable subnet. The administrator plans on enabling
Use-Subnet-IP mode and disabling Use-Source-IP mode.
Which two IP addresses can the administrator set as source IP addresses for connections to back-end
servers?
(Choose two.)
A. VIP
B. MIP
C. SNIP
D. NSIP
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Scenario: An administrator is planning to deploy NetScaler systems in an environment with multiple IP
subnets, one of which is non-routable. The company is an online retailer and needs outbound
connections from the non-routable subnet in order to verify credit cards.
What will an administrator need to configure to meet the company's requirements?
A. SIP
B. USIP
C. RNAT
D. USNIP
E. Layer 2 mode
Answer: C

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NO.18 Scenario: A company has distributed Internet sites and installations are spread across multiple
network locations and requires load balancing to be based on the client's proximity to the site, with the
least amount of configuration.
What must the administrator do to ensure GSLB uses the appropriate load balancing method?
A. Enable and configure Dynamic Proximity based Global Server Load Balancing.
B. Enable Dynamic Network Proximity based on the RTT of the client accessing the load balancing virtual
server.
C. Enable DNS view based Static Proximity through an Advanced expression to extract the client IP and
compare it to the subnet of the site.
D. Enable Proximity based Global Server Load Balancing and use the location's database to enter the
MAC address of all the clients and the corresponding site to which they should make the connection.
Answer: A

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NO.19 The auditing and security policy of a company requires that all transactions that can be logged must be
logged. Which option must an administrator configure a syslog server for to meet this requirement?
A. Device counters
B. System counters
C. HTTP transactions
D. Audited commands
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which option must an administrator enable on a NetScaler system to route packets that are not
destined for the NetScaler?
A. L2 mode
B. L3 mode
C. Static route advertisement
D. Dynamic route advertisement
Answer: B

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